0 votes 0 votes $\underset{x \to \infty}{\lim} \bigg( 1+ \dfrac{1}{x} \bigg)^{2x} $ is equal to $e^{-2}$ $e$ $1$ $e^2$ Calculus gate2015-ce-2 calculus limits + – Milicevic3306 asked Mar 26, 2018 • retagged Mar 11, 2021 by Lakshman Bhaiya Milicevic3306 11.9k points answer See all 0 reply